I have following simple questions to all the N-league/PDM mafia supporters who have used the term 'Imrando' (which is equal to Imran + Gando) in the past whether they and the likes of lifafa sahafis like Najam Sethi, Talat Hussain who coined this term and have used this term many times and are still using this term from time to time that whether they are committing blasphemy or not based on following questions? Similarly the Molana Fazl-u-Rehman also have used this term many time and has he not committed blasphemy and Tauheen-e-Nabi and Tauheen-e-Quran?
1. If let's for an argument, Imran Khan's parent would have named him after our beloved prophet Muhammad PBUH as Muhammad Khan? would they consider it to be using the term Mu******do (naozobillah I can't even write it) to be OK and not blasphemous and tauheen-e-Risalat?
2. If IK's parent would have named him after our beloved prophet Ibrahim PBUH as Ibrahim Khan? would they consider it to be using the term Ib******do (naozobillah I can't even write it) to be OK and not blasphemous?
If answer to above two questions is No then how come they use this term when Imran is the name of a prophet/nabi (just like the names Muhammad and Ibrahim) and this name is mentioned in Quran in a surah of Quran named 'Surah Aal-e-Imran'? So, are they not committing blasphemy and tauheen-e-nabi and tauheen-e-Quran when Allah swt has mentioned following:
"Indeed, Allah chose Adam, Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of ’Imrân above all people ˹of their time˺." Surah Aal-e-Imran: 34
1. If let's for an argument, Imran Khan's parent would have named him after our beloved prophet Muhammad PBUH as Muhammad Khan? would they consider it to be using the term Mu******do (naozobillah I can't even write it) to be OK and not blasphemous and tauheen-e-Risalat?
2. If IK's parent would have named him after our beloved prophet Ibrahim PBUH as Ibrahim Khan? would they consider it to be using the term Ib******do (naozobillah I can't even write it) to be OK and not blasphemous?
If answer to above two questions is No then how come they use this term when Imran is the name of a prophet/nabi (just like the names Muhammad and Ibrahim) and this name is mentioned in Quran in a surah of Quran named 'Surah Aal-e-Imran'? So, are they not committing blasphemy and tauheen-e-nabi and tauheen-e-Quran when Allah swt has mentioned following:
"Indeed, Allah chose Adam, Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of ’Imrân above all people ˹of their time˺." Surah Aal-e-Imran: 34