Point Blank ? Muta in Islam - Part 2 Added now[MERGED]

babadeena

Minister (2k+ posts)
Yah Jaheel dukeLondon,

The Arabic dictionaries define mut'a as 'enjoyment, pleasure, delight'. The root form, m-t: signifies, 'to carry away, to take away'
yes it is,
A 'marriage of mut'a' is a marriage which the contract stipulates will last for a fixed period of time

Only fabricated by certain who are "personality(ies) worshiper".
This 'marriage of mut'a' is referred to both in the hadith literature and, in much more detail, in the books on jurisprudence (fiqh). In the hadith and in other sayings related from early Muslims the word 'mut'a' itself is usually employed.
Didnt, I say something in my previous post, you can only find it anywhere less Quran.
because the Qur'an itself refers to this kind of marriage employing a term derived from the same root. In the following verse, the word istimta', the tenth verbal form of the root m-t-', is translated as 'enjoy': 'So those of them [women] whom you enjoy, give to them their appointed wages' (4:24)

Oh you can see that it is "enjoy" then from where it has been translated and propagated as "Muta marriage"
Can you show me a translations from Pickthal, Yusuf Ali, Shakir, Sher Ali, Khalifa or any other where it has been
translated as "muta marraige".

In the above verse, the Arabic equivalent of the word "marriage" or any of its derivatives has NOT been used. Rather the derivative of word "Mut'a" (pleasure/temporary marriage) has been used, i.e., "Istamta'tum". The word Istamta'a is the tenth verbal form of the root m-t-a. Mut'a is one type of marriage, but some of it's regulations are different than the permanent marriage, including the fact that the couple can extend this contract by mutual agreement as the end of verse specifies.

Ya Jaheel! read Quran the verses before and after somewhere word "wed" (Nikkah) etc has been used. what is then
the verse, according to you where the arabic word "marriage" has been used in whole of Quran. Just show me a reference.

Allah (SWT) is discussing different types of marriages: first, permanent marriage in the verses before Verse 24, then temporary marriage in Verse 24, and then marriage with the slave girls in Verse 25. Thus Allah(SWT) repeated the issue of dowry three times, one for permanent marriage, one for temporary marriage and one for the bondwomen.

Dont invent lie against Allah. One who does so, is perished. Allah talks only one Marriage and that is all.

Rests what you have written has no value.
Now your favoured sentence:
AQAL KAY ANDHAY BABA DEENA, YE PARHO AUR SOCH SAMAJH KAY BAKWAAS KIYA KARO ISLAM, QURAN AUR ARBI KAY BAAREY MEIN:
Ya Jaheel. Go and propogate shiaism, you will be litterally countered when you will misquote quran. Take
care of that necklace in your neck like Aasoobilla.
 

dukelondon

Senator (1k+ posts)
@babadeena

I'm not propagating any sect here. I'm just using literal translation from the Quran. Just like Bret Hawk, I don't care which sect has been following Muta marriage for a long time and which sect has just started to follow it in Saudia Arabia, Egypt and so on. You are trying to manipulate facts. It is a known fact that due to the Ayat I quoted earlier, Muta marriage became allowed and was practiced by many Sahaba during the time of the Prophet (PBUH) and Hazrat Abu Bakar (RA). It was only stopped during the reign of Hazrat Umar (RA). However, if a Quranic verse allows something, only another Quranic verse can abrogate it. No personality can abrogate it on his own. Even a hadees cannot abrogate it. That is only reason why countries like Saudia Arabia, Egypt and so on are allowing Mutah marriage now. I think you haven't watched the episode of Point Blank in the beginning of this thread. Watch it and then talk.

Dont bring Shia/Sunni sects into the discussion. Limit it to the topic. We are just discussing Mutah's presence in the Quran.
 

Bret Hawk

Senator (1k+ posts)
I agree with bro Duke Londoner and I appreciate the time and effort he puuts forward to clear the misconception of this issue of temporary marriage. And sister mehwish Ali is admirable as well in this regard to present a different point of view from the lope sided ones in this forum.


Bret Hawk
 

babadeena

Minister (2k+ posts)
@@@Duke@de@London
I'm not propagating any sect here.
nice to know that. One should not.
I'm just using literal translation from the Quran.
I once again ask u. Please provide "literal translation" of any well-known author in English where
he/she has/had used that word as "muta marriage". This is sheer "fabrication" and
that is being contested with you. This challenge remains for u.
Just like Bret Hawk, I don't care which sect has been following Muta marriage for a long time and which sect has just started to follow it in Saudia Arabia, Egypt and so on.
You both r not the only one. Keep me on board also???????
You are trying to manipulate facts. It is a known fact that due to the Ayat I quoted earlier, Muta marriage became allowed and was practiced by many Sahaba during the time of the Prophet (PBUH) and Hazrat Abu Bakar (RA).
Everyone in his/her own grave and responsible what he/she did. But for sure, no where in the verse, "muta
marriage" was sanctioned. Some did it on his own or some are doing on their own, but no sanction from
Quran. That is my point.
if a Quranic verse allows something, only another Quranic verse can abrogate it. No personality can abrogate it on his own. Even a hadees cannot abrogate it.
R u colour blind person. How many times, I have to ask you which Quranic verse has allowed. It is U and your Ltd who
are manipulating facts. Look the sentence U wrote "if a quranic verse allows something", correct it, you wish
to convey that "if Quranic verse allows muta marraige". Show me where it is? do not generalize a thing and
try to get it suited to your own interpretation or motive/creed/thinking etc.
That is only reason why countries like Saudia Arabia, Egypt and so on are allowing Mutah marriage now.
I do not care a cent for this. What they are doing. Neither their being doing so automatically manifests that the
practice being followed is sanctioned in Quran.
I think you haven't watched the episode of Point Blank in the beginning of this thread. Watch it and then talk.
Mein athay kothiana nahee chardaa piyaa. What u think of yourself, be my guest as far as Quran is
concerned.
We are just discussing Mutah's presence in the Quran.
Show me where it is in Quran. I wait eagerly. "Perished is He, who invents a lie" check this
in Quran itself.
May Allah increase your knowledge of Quran and show U right way. Before concluding let me ask u one thing
do u think that (naoohozobilla) Allah was in dearth of words to put "Ankahuna lay ajalil musamaman"(marry them only for an appointed time) in stead of using the word "Istimah". But I am afraid u will not get that wave or frequency from
where this question is asked????????
"One who is sent astray by Allah, never gets guidance".
 

abduttawwab

MPA (400+ posts)

??????????? ??? ?????? ????? ?????? ??? ???????????? ??????? ????? ?????????? ??????????
(Ya Allah) To You belongs all purity! We have no knowledge except what You have given us. Surely, You alone are the All-knowing, All-wise..
[AlBaqara:32]


Although much have been said on the topic, I feel some of participants and readers still not very clear regarding fundamental principles of Quranic Explanation and Shariah Law.
To extend my knowledge and clerifying the things I want to ask few questions to those who understand that Muta' is permissible: (excuse from Shia members)

Can anybody who has not spent enough time in learning laws of Tafseer-e-Quran, Usool-e-Hadeeth, Asmaa-o-Rijaal, Usool-e-Fiqh, Fiqh, Sarf-o-Nahw, Balaghat, Ilm-e-Maani, Ilm-e-Badee' etc, derive the juristic ruling directly after reading part of a single verse from Quran?

If a common person who has NOT acquired enough Ilm-e-Deen, follow a group of learned authentic pious Islamic Scholars (including majority of companions of our beloved prophet, peace be upon him, and mufasereen), then is it a slavish mentality?

Is 'Wahi' consists of only verses of Holy Quran?

Can't a part of 'wahi' change the other part of 'wahi'?

Is Arabic dictionaries are enough for a common person to understand and derive shariah laws mentioned in Quran?

---

How many of Sahaba (r.a), mufassereen and translators of Holy Qura say that the meaning of word 'IstimTatum' in ayat 3:24 is Mutaah (temporary marriage)? A rough percentage or names of those personalities with reference?


From the list of Mufassereen who take the meaning of word 'IstimTatum' as Mutaah, what's their point of view on permission on Mutaah? Do they are in favor or are against?

--- dukelondon said ---
I don't care which sect has been following Muta marriage for a long time and which sect has just started to follow it in Saudia Arabia, Egypt and so on.

Are Misyar Marriage, practiced in few Arab countries, and Mutaah (Temp. Marriage) are same thing?


Due to lack of time I dont participate here frequently, therefore I apologize in advance for the possible late replies. Thanks!
 

dukelondon

Senator (1k+ posts)
abduttawwab said:
Are Misyar Marriage, practiced in few Arab countries, and Mutaah (Temp. Marriage) are same thing?

Yes, they are the same thing. They might be calling it Misyar instead of Mutah but it is the same. As per Mubashar Luqman, they have however, changed the time to atleast 3 years to prevent misuse as an Ijtihaad which is ok and permissible. Please note that Mutah is being practiced in these countries as an Islamic law NOT just court marriage or something.
 

abduttawwab

MPA (400+ posts)
dukelondon said:
abduttawwab said:
Are Misyar Marriage, practiced in few Arab countries, and Mutaah (Temp. Marriage) are same thing?

Yes, they are the same thing. They might be calling it Misyar instead of Mutah but it is the same. As per Mubashar Luqman, they have however, changed the time to atleast 3 years to prevent misuse as an Ijtihaad which is ok and permissible. Please note that Mutah is being practiced in these countries as an Islamic law NOT just court marriage or something.

Brother, as per my understanding there is a primary difference b/w the two:
- Misyaar is described as a form of marriage in which the wife gives up her rights from her husband for example living with her in the same house and providing her with necessary expenses etc. The husband may come to see her at her parents home at whatever time he chooses for himself, or at a time agreed by the two.
- Whereas Mutaah (temporary marriage) is a fixed-term marriage contract according to the Usuli Shia schools.The duration of this type of marriage is fixed at its inception and is then automatically dissolved upon completion of its term.
(See en.wikipedia.org for details)

Now regarding Misyar:

The term Nikah Misyar (translated sometimes as travellers marriage or marriage of convenience) is not found in the Quran, Sunna or classical works of Islamic jurisprudence. It is a term that has been introduced recently by those discussing a specific type of matrimonial arrangement. However, the concept of such an arrangement can be found being discussed in the works of classical Muslim jurists (fuqaha).

In order to understand the correct Islamic viewpoint regarding Nikah Misyar, it is essential to first be familiar with the exact meaning of this term, as understood by those who have discussed it.

Definition

A Misyar marriage can be defined as an official marriage contract between a man and a woman, with the condition that the spouses give up one, two or several of their rights by their own free will. These include: living together, equal division of nights between wives in cases of polygamy, the wifes right to housing (sukna) and financial support (nafaqa). In some cases, only one right is relinquished by the spouses, such as living together, but the husband is still required to provide housing for the wife and maintain her financially, whilst in other instances, the wife gives up all her rights including housing and financial support. The bottom line in such arrangements is that the couple agree to live separately from each other, as before their Nikah contract, and see each other to fulfil their needs in a lawful manner when they so desire. At times, a Misyar marriage is contracted on a temporary basis which ends in divorce on the expiration date of the contract.

Islamic Ruling

As for the Islamic ruling concerning such marriages, there are two issues to consider:

1) Validity and permissibility;

2) Appropriateness.


I. Validity and Permissibility

If all the basic requirements for an Islamic marriage contract are fulfilled, then this type of marriage arrangement is permissible and valid, and the couple will not be guilty of being involved in an unlawful illicit relationship. The basic requirements for a valid marriage according to Sharia are the following:

a) Offer (ijab) from one party and acceptance (qabul) from the other in one session (majlis), and that this offer and acceptance is verbal and thus heard and understood clearly. In other words, the agreement of both parties.

b) The presence of at least two male witnesses (shahidayn), or one male and two female witnesses, who hear and clearly understand the offer and acceptance. (Mukhtasar al-Quduri 2/140 & Fath al-Qadir 3/190)

c) The consent of a legal guardian of the woman (wali) is also a necessary requirement according to the Maliki, Shafii and Hanbali Schools of Sunni Islamic Law. However, according to the relied upon position in the Hanafi School, the marriage of a free, sane and adult woman without the approval of her guardian (wali) is valid if the person she is marrying is a legal and suitable match (kuf) for her. Conversely, if the person she is marrying is not a legal match for her, then her marriage would be considered invalid. (Radd al-Muhtar ala l-Durr al-Mukhtar 3/56-57 & Ila al-Sunan 11/69 in the chapter: Having a guardian is not a pre-requisite for the validity of an adult womans marriage. For more details, please refer to the answer previously posted on this website titled: Divorced woman marrying without her guardians approval).

d) The absence of a fixed time-period. It is a basic requirement of a valid marriage contract that it does not entail any agreement of it being limited to a specified time such as two moths or five days, since it is essentially the Muta marriage that has been explicitly prohibited by the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him and give him peace).

Classical jurists (fuqaha) have clearly stated the impermissibility and invalidity of time-limited (muaqqat) marriages. Imam al-Haskafi, the renowned Hanafi jurist, states:

A Muta and time-limited marriage (nikah muaqqat) is invalid, even if the period [of marriage] is unknown to the wife or is prolonged... (Radd al-Muhtar ala l-Durr al-Mukhtar 3/51. Also see for the Shafii School: Mughni al-Muhtaj Sharh al-Minhaj 4/231, for the Hanbali School: Kashshaf al-Qina 5/96-97, and the Maliki School: Hashiyat al-Dasuqi ala l-Sharh al-Kabir 2/238-239)

As for when there is no explicit mention of the marriage being limited to a specified time, but both or one of the spouses intend to terminate the marriage some time in the future, the position of the majority of classical scholars is that such a marriage is valid, and the couple will not be guilty of involving themselves in an unlawful relationship.

It is stated in al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya, a renowned Hanafi reference work:

If a man marries a woman unconditionally [i.e. without it being limited to a specified time], and it is in his intention to remain with her for a time that he intends [and then divorce her], then the marriage is valid... (al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya 1/283)

Likewise, Imam Ibn al-Humam (Allah have mercy on him) states in his Fath al-Qadir:

As for when the husband marries and it is in his intention to divorce her after a period that he intends, then the marriage is valid. (Fath al-Qadir, 3/152)

The Shafiis also state that if one marries, and it is in his intention to divorce the wife after a period of time he has in mind, the marriage is considered valid. As for the Hanbalis, they have explicitly stated that if a person marries with the intention of divorcing the woman, even without stating it explicitly in the marriage contract itself, then the marriage is invalid, because it is a temporary marriage, which is invalid by explicit primary texts. (See: al-Mawsua al-Fiqhiyya, Kuwait)

Since Islam emphasises upholding marriages, the couple will not be obligated to terminate their marriage according to their intention, rather they must not resort to divorce without a genuine reason. Marrying with the intention of ending the marriage after a given period is disliked according to Sharia, and as such, a marriage contracted with such an intention in mind is also disliked, although valid per se. (Mufti Taqi Usmani, Fiqhi Maqalat 1/258)

So, the basic minimum requirement in order for a marriage to be considered Islamically valid is that there be a valid offer from one party and a corresponding acceptance from the other, in the presence of two male (or one male and two female) witnesses who are able to hear clearly and understand what is happening. The offer, acceptance and the presence of the witnesses must all take place in the same session and at the same place, and there must not be any explicit mention of the marriage being limited to a specified time. The consent of the womans guardian is also necessary according to the three Schools, and in some cases, according to the Hanafi School also. As for the payment of dowry (mahr), this is the womans right and should be stipulated at the time of the marriage contract, but it is not a pre-requisite for the validly of the marriage.

As such, if the above necessary factors are met, the marriage is valid according to Sharia, even if it is a Misyar marriage. Thus, if the Misyar marriage is limited to a specified time, it is invalid, and the couples relationship will be unlawful and sinful. Men who sometimes enter into a temporary Misyar marriage while on holiday must realize that if this is explicitly mentioned at the time of contracting the marriage, then it would make such a marriage invalid and unlawful, and more akin to Muta. If there is no explicit mention of this, but the man marries with the intention of divorce, then it is disliked, and unlawful [but valid] if it entails harm to the woman.

Giving up Rights

As mentioned earlier, the basic feature which distinguishes Misyar from a standard marriage is that the spouses, and more specifically the wife, gives up one or several of her rights by her own free will.

Islamically, it is permitted for both parties to mutually agree upon relinquishing one or several of their rights, which they would otherwise be entitled to in a standard marriage. The wife may forego her right to housing, spending time with her husband and/or financial support. The husband may give up the right of his wife living with him at his residence.

Sayyida Aisha (may Allah be pleased with her) relates that Sawda bint Zama (may Allah be pleased with her) gave up her [right of spending the] day [with the Messenger of Allah] to Aisha, and so the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him & give him peace) used to give Aisha both her day and the day of Sawda (Allah be pleased with both). (Sahih al-Bukhari, no: 4914)

Sayyida Aisha (may Allah be pleased with her) relates that in his fatal illness, the Messenger of Allah (Allah bless him and grant him peace) used to ask, Where will I be tomorrow? Where will I be tomorrow? wanting the day of Aisha. His wives gave him permission to be wherever he wished, so he was in the room of Aisha until he passed away by her... (Sahih al-Bukhari, no: 4185)

It is stated in al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya:

It is not wrong to marry a woman on a day-time basis (nahariyyat). This means that the man marries her on the condition that he will spend the day with her but not the night. (al-Fatawa al-Hindiyya 1/283)

It should be noted, however, that if a wife gives up her rights, she is entitled to reclaiming them. She may ask her husband to fulfil all her rights, including that he provide for her financially. The husband can also demand that she move in with him at his residence.

Imam al-Haskafi (Allah have mercy on him) states:

If a wife grants her right of spending time with the husband to her co-wife, then this is valid, but she has the right to reverse her decision in the future if she so desires. (See: Radd al-Muhtar ala l-Durr al-Mukhtar, 3/206)

II. Appropriateness

The above discussion was regarding the permissibility and validity of a Misyar marriage. As for whether such a marriage is appropriate according to Sharia, generally speaking, the answer would have to be no, since it goes against the spirit and objectives of marriage, which is to establish a long-term relationship as a family, and raise righteous Muslim children. The children raised by their mother in a home from which the father is always absent may well suffer psychologically and spiritually.

It is even worse in a situation where the man is only concerned about his own sexual desires and has no regard for his wife. He does not hesitate in marrying and divorcing women as and when he so desires. Some irresponsible men go on holidays to poor countries and marry young women by offering them money, riches and a lavish lifestyle, only to divorce them after a few weeks or months. They do this on a continuous basis, marrying women and then divorcing them, without any regard for the creation of Allah Most High. As a result, the wife finds herself abandoned and leading a solitary life as before the marriage, but traumatized by the experience, while her social status and reputation degraded. Harming and deceiving others are both great sins in the eyes of the Sharia.

On the other hand, a Misyar marriage may be the only option in certain situations. Some women, as they get older, find it increasingly difficult to marry. In such cases, the woman may marry a man who is not able to fulfil the normal marital duties like financial support or spending adequate time with her. Marrying such a husband is better for her than remaining unmarried.

A young couple may be engaged to one another and have the consent of their respective guardians (wali) to marry. They wish to marry as soon as possible, because they genuinely fear committing Zina, but the man does not have the financial resources to support his wife. This type of marriage could meet their needs allowing them to marry whilst living with their parents until they are ready to move in together.

Some divorced or widowed women, who have their own residence and their own financial resources, genuinely cannot, or do not, want to marry again in the normal manner. Some women, who are burdened with heavy duties and responsibilities, are unable to live with their husbands and serve them. A Misyar marriage may well be suited to them.

In fact, some classical scholars such as Imam Abu l-Faraj ibn al-Jawzi (may Allah have mercy on him) have suggested that it may even be healthy for the marriage if both spouses mutually agree to spend time apart from one another or sleep separately, and be together occasionally in order to maintain a high level of sexual passion for one another. (Sayd al-Khatir, P: 605- 606)

As such, in conclusion, whether a Misyar marriage is appropriate or not, this depends on each individual case and scenario. One should thus discuss the particulars of ones case with a knowledgeable and God-fearing scholar. As for its validity, if all the basic requirements for a standard Islamic marriage are fulfilled, it is valid, keeping in mind that the wife is entitled to reclaiming her rights that she gave up at the time of marriage whenever she so desires.

And Allah knows best

 

babadeena

Minister (2k+ posts)
dukelondon said:
@babadeena

Bhai tell me what is the word used for marriage in arabic dictionary?

@@@DukeLondon@@@@

Is it a joke or what. I have asked you so many things in previous posts, none u have
replied and you cannot even with the help of your Ltd.Company??? now conveniently you
resort to ask????

There is only 'ONE MARRIAGE", It is not categorized in three types of marriages as you
contend. Since you cannot prove anything from Quran about your instance, matter is
closed. "Muta or whatever is an institutionalized prostitution" only "time-span" is different.
with prostitute one goes, pays and off he is, but in your concept, pays and intentionally
stays longer. "A thing, the intention of which is so rubish and pre-determined, has no
sanction whatsoever from Quran"

Duke, London is fertile city, get some drink and fishnchips.
 

babadeena

Minister (2k+ posts)
As for its validity, if all the basic requirements for a standard Islamic marriage are fulfilled, it is valid, keeping in mind that the wife is entitled to reclaiming her rights that she gave up at the time of marriage whenever she so desires.

Why then it cannot be called a simple marriage instead of "bewildered word misyar". In Islam, either it is
a marriage (ONE TYPE OF MARRIAGE), or what I said in last post.

??? ??????????? ?????????????? ???????????? ?????? ????????????

So either it is or it is not? Choice is very clear.

waslaam
 

mehwish_ali

Chief Minister (5k+ posts)
Assalam o Alaikum

Brother Babadeena, you have brought the Informations about Misyaar Marriage and thanks for it.

But may I ask if you have really read the Article that I posted about Misyar & Muttah Marriage?

If yes, then have you not noticed what is the Actual Problem with Misyaar Marriage in Practical Life? What you says about Misyaar Marriage, it is fully acceptable, but the points which I brought into your notice about Misyaar marriage, they are absolutely not acceptable and unfortunately it is what has been practised in Arab Countries or by the Arabs who are living in Western Countries.

Was Salam.

PS: I was trying to avoid further discussion on this Topic, but you have repeatedly brought the issue of Verse of Muttah (4:24) and ?????? ??? ???????
It seems to me it's better I write a very very clear answer to your questions and hopefully that helps you to understand. Insha-Allah. Please give me some time for this.
 

abduttawwab

MPA (400+ posts)
babadeena said:
As for its validity, if all the basic requirements for a standard Islamic marriage are fulfilled, it is valid, keeping in mind that the wife is entitled to reclaiming her rights that she gave up at the time of marriage whenever she so desires.

Why then it cannot be called a simple marriage instead of "bewildered word misyar". In Islam, either it is
a marriage (ONE TYPE OF MARRIAGE), or what I said in last post.

??? ??????????? ?????????????? ???????????? ?????? ????????????

So either it is or it is not? Choice is very clear.

waslaam

Brother Assalam-o-alaikum wr,

Actually our society has made the masnoon nikah very difficult thats why the people are looking other ways as alternatives; nikah-e-misyar is one of them.
I am not supporting this newly invented thing but trying to clarify that Misyar and Mutaah are all together two different things. Mutaah is totally Haram, according to Quran, Sunnah and Ijmaa-e-Sahaba (ra) [only shia consider it Halal], whereas Misyaar is not Haraam if all the basic requirements for Nikah are fulfilled.

The problem is not only with the terminology used but we should look into conditions and procedure of nikah, if they are accordance with legal Shariah requirements then we cant say its invalid.
Since Misyaar is not the masnoon way therefore should only be adopted in certain situations. For the details please refer to my previous post.

And definitely it should be ?????? ???????????? and giving up rights by a wife from her husband doesn't make it '????????????'

Hope it clarifies.
 

abduttawwab

MPA (400+ posts)
Brother BretHawk would you help me finding the answers of the following: Thanks!

abduttawwab said:

??????????? ??? ?????? ????? ?????? ??? ???????????? ??????? ????? ?????????? ??????????
(Ya Allah) To You belongs all purity! We have no knowledge except what You have given us. Surely, You alone are the All-knowing, All-wise..
[AlBaqara:32]


Although much have been said on the topic, I feel some of participants and readers still not very clear regarding fundamental principles of Quranic Explanation and Shariah Law.
To extend my knowledge and clerifying the things I want to ask few questions to those who understand that Muta' is permissible: (excuse from Shia members)

Can anybody who has not spent enough time in learning laws of Tafseer-e-Quran, Usool-e-Hadeeth, Asmaa-o-Rijaal, Usool-e-Fiqh, Fiqh, Sarf-o-Nahw, Balaghat, Ilm-e-Maani, Ilm-e-Badee' etc, derive the juristic ruling directly after reading part of a single verse from Quran?

If a common person who has NOT acquired enough Ilm-e-Deen, follow a group of learned authentic pious Islamic Scholars (including majority of companions of our beloved prophet, peace be upon him, and mufasereen), then is it a slavish mentality?

Is 'Wahi' consists of only verses of Holy Quran?

Can't a part of 'wahi' change the other part of 'wahi'?

Is Arabic dictionaries are enough for a common person to understand and derive shariah laws mentioned in Quran?

---

How many of Sahaba (r.a), mufassereen and translators of Holy Qura say that the meaning of word 'IstimTatum' in ayat 3:24 is Mutaah (temporary marriage)? A rough percentage or names of those personalities with reference?

From the list of Mufassereen who take the meaning of word 'IstimTatum' as Mutaah, what's their point of view on permission on Mutaah? Do they are in favor or are against?
 

babadeena

Minister (2k+ posts)
Brother Assalam-o-alaikum wr,

Actually our society has made the masnoon nikah very difficult thats why the people are looking other ways as alternatives; nikah-e-misyar is one of them.

It is then the fault of the society which according to her own convenience is inventing "Bidah" and
justifying it religiously.

I am not supporting this newly invented thing but trying to clarify that Misyar and Mutaah are all together two different things. Mutaah is totally Haram, according to Quran, Sunnah and Ijmaa-e-Sahaba (ra) [only shia consider it Halal], whereas Misyaar is not Haraam if all the basic requirements for Nikah are fulfilled.

Brother, no offence, but u r not rejecting it also categorically and vehemently. Mutaah or Misyaar both and
illegal and way to "institutionalized prostitution". If all the basic requirements for Niah are fulfilled then the
"marriage" is only "marriage", it is not to be called anything other than that.

I have read your post word by word regarding Misyaar. This is double standard for all the people who project or prove it. Why the hell, a lady has to forego her rights in the first place, is it some kind of business etc. Sorry at least, I do not buy this theory and fitwaas irrespective of their source. Allah (SWT) has made life simple and clear, why
people are bent upon to make it complicated.

A Muslim couple desiring to marry each other, has to marry without any time restrictions either written, or in intentions because Allah knows everything. They have to marry to spend their life according to the limits prescribed by Allah (SWT). May I tell you also, men have been given a degree over women because they spend on them, and
hell of heaven, if a lady is willing to forgo expenses, bed sharing etc then the man has to be some Allain de leon type personality with whom lady is willing to play blind. Unfortunately that is not the case. So, in "ISLAM" either it
is marriage or...........

waslaam.
 

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