Yeah but the only problem with these modernist like Ghulam Ahmed Perwez, Abdul Elah Nazer and this guy is.
That you just can't change the meaning of the words of the Quran to suit your own perceptions. Poll the entire Arab speaking world about the meaning of the word Ummi, whether its unlettered or gentile and you will get your answer.
The Qur’ān has not merely been revealed in Arabic: it has been revealed in eloquent Arabic. The language is clear and cogent, and there is no vagueness in it; every word is unambiguous and every style adopted is well known to its addressees.
The Qur’ān says: "The faithful Spirit has brought it down into your heart [O Prophet] that you may become a warner [for people] in eloquent Arabic. (26:193-195) In the form of an Arabic Qur’ān, free from any ambiguity that they may save themselves [from punishment]. (39:28) "
This is an obvious reality about the Qur’ān. If this premise is accepted, then it must be conceded that no word used or style adopted by the Qur’ān is rare or unknown (shādh). Its words and styles are well known and conventionally understood by its addressees. No aspect of the language has any peculiarity or rarity in it. Consequently, while interpreting the Qur’ān, the conventionally understood and known meanings of the words should be taken into consideration. Apart from them, no interpretation is acceptable.
Dear x, please tell me if you were there when human beings invented their human languages? You were definitely not there. People who wrote books came much much later than those who started human languages. This is why no grammarian worth the name will tell you that any human language was written according to any particular grammar rules. All dictionaries and grammar books came about much much later.
Meanwhile people have been coming up with new words and new meanings of words. This happened always and constantly and continues even today. No grammar book contains all the rules and even those rules that are in the grammar books are not necessarily 100% correct in each and every respect. Likewise no dictionary contains all the words ever used by a people of any particular language or their all meanings.
This is why your way of thinking in this matter is totally flawed, why? Because it does not work. My way of thinking is right 100%, why? Because it works.
If you believe words in any language are fixed in their number or in the number of their meanings then you are utterly wrong because real world realities contradict that. How do they do that? The universe is huge and number of things in it are countless. People discover new things or their new aspects each and every day and they need to name them and describe them in various ways as to what they are called and what are their attributes or qualities or properties or characteristics or behaviours etc etc.
This was happening right at the time of revelation of the quran as well. This is why to claim the quranic words don't have any meanings other than the ones used in some books written by people at the time is a false idea or claim.
I have given you links for this kind of information to go through. I cannot explain each and everything about human language nor to each and every individual. So kindly try and find out things for yourself as well instead of holding onto wrong ideas.
Have you looked through dictionary of parwez? He also provides you with references for meanings of words. He also gives you reference to mechanism whereby people derived meanings of words. The quran will have become a useless book if its words were limited by time of its revelation. This is why people give you reasons for various meanings of any particular word. That is the mechanism used for knowing meanings of a word. Take that meaning driving mechanism away and the quran becomes meaningless along with all human languages.
Is this then not proof enough for you to prove beyond any reasonable doubt that the quranic worlds have multiple meanings? You see, we have words, we have some of their meanings and the mechanism whereby those meanings were obtained on basis of certain reasons then what does that prove? That proves beyond a shadow of doubt that each and every meaning of a word is fine so long as it is based upon appropriate reasoning and the very same mechanism whereby rest of meanings of any of the words were derived at any time during the life of a word.
This is what my study of the quran is about and that is why I can overlook ghamdi's criticism of parwez. Ghamdi did not study origin and development of human language as I did. I have explained these things in my writings on this forum in the links I have provided. I hope this explanation helps you see things as they should be seen in this particular aspect.
regards and all the best.